Previoously I presented a question regarding the KJV being the only authorized Bible.(I do not believe this). But at the time I had misplaced the brochure beiing sent advertisiing a Seminar of such. At this time I will attempt to relate theirinformation and questions presented: ATTENTION BIBLE STUDENTS! "IF ANY MAN HAVE EARS TO HEAR, LET HIM HEAR." MARK 7:16 A SEMINAR ENTITLED: THE KING JAMES VERSION: GOD'S HOLY WORD PRESENTED BY: CARL W. DEEMS Just a few of the questions to be answered.... 1. How is satan a master counterfitter? 2. How did God inspire and preserve His written word? 3. Why are the New International Version, the New American Standard version and the New World Trnslation so much alike? 4. Why did the King James Version translators reject the Greek used to translate other Bible versions? Location: Lakeside Baptist Church Pastor Ted Hines 3055 Bacom Point Road Pahokee, Florida Date and Times omitted because the time has come and gone. For more info call: 1-561-924-7925 Thank for your time. Ih Him Bruce

-- Anonymous, February 28, 2001

Answers

1. How is satan a master counterfitter?

This is a Straw Man argument, making it sound like there must be a problem.

2. How did God inspire and preserve His written word?

Certainly not through 16th century Elizabethan English! I pity the poor people in Spanish speaking and other countries, for they don't have the true word of God in the King James. I suppose they must learn English first, then be tutored in antiquated language forms, before they can finally have the Word of God.

3. Why are the New International Version, the New American Standard version and the New World Translation so much alike?

Another Straw Man argument. KJV-onlyites love Straw Man arguments. Their entire argument that certain verses appear in the KJV and not in other translations and therefore the other translations must be false is a Straw Man. The fact is that those verses are disputed. The fact is also that not one of those verses affects any Christian doctrine whatsoever.

(They are also committing the logical fallacy of assuming what they are trying to prove. They say that because the KJV has certain verses the NIV and NASB lack, the NIV and NASV are therefore subtracting from scripture. One could just as easily say that since the KJV has verses the NIV and NASV doesnt, the KJV is guilty of adding to God's word.)

Basically it seems to most scholars that the NWT was paraphrased from the NIV and others, then the wording changed in places where it obviously didn't fit JW theology. But to say that because the NIV and NASV agree with each other is evidence that they are both false is a ridiculous argument. As is saying that if the NWT borrowed heavily from the others, they must be full of error. Its the Guilt by Association fallacy ... and a rather bad one at that.

4. Why did the King James Version translators reject the Greek used to translate other Bible versions?

The King James Version translators didn't have the Greek used to translate other Bible versions, since most of the most reliable and ancient Greek manuscripts have only been discovered in the latter half of the 20th century.

-- Anonymous, March 02, 2001