Could anyone just confirm something for me: If an alleged debt is over 12 years old, then it is now statute-barred, regardless of whether or not the lenders are members of the Council of Mortgage Lenders - right or wrong?(posted 7467 days ago)Sorry, I'm sure the answer is as obvious as it seems, its just that JDL are trotting this out as an excuse to continue chasing me and I'd just like to make sure before I tell them to shove it!
Many thanks