I'm still a bit unsure of where I stand here....(posted 8011 days ago)To clarify my situation a little where it seems perhaps more relevant:
My 1st contact from the lender was to explain that although there was insurance in place to cover reposession/shortfall the debt was still owed. As I said before this letter was received about 8yrs ago.
The initial shortfall in mortgage re-payments and/or (voluntary) reposession would have been 12yrs+ to date.
Some of the (scarey) correspondence was from debt collectors (not sure when exactly - I was/still am running scared) within the past 3yrs.
I have not responded at ANY time to any attempt at communication. This has sometimes driven me to near paranoia on occasion, e.g. not answering 'caller withheld/number unavailable' calls, NEVER completing any form with credit reference mentioned amongst numerous other things - at least I've been consistent (if not dumb!).
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The exact points I would like to clarify are:
1. Does the 12yr 'rule' solely rely upon the lender/debtor 'attempting' contact, whether or not I responsed, in which case I am still screwed?
2. Does a 12yr clock start ticking from the issue date of a MJO?
3. Is it 'safe' for me to ask a solicitor(?) to request information on any MJO held against me?
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Apologies in advance for the long post.
Rue