Reading around on the site has just got me thinking - I'm not 100% sure (need to check when I get home), but I believe that the original letter from the letter informing of the shortfall was addressed to my ex-partner's father, which is why I never received it. He acted as guarantor and joint mortgage borrower for a while, but at the time of repossession my ex-partner was of legal age and indeed had taken on this responsibilty.(posted 8009 days ago)If there was no original letter in either mine or my ex-partners name, and the repossession is well over 6 years ago, could this be significant in my defence ??
Many thanks for any help or advice you can give me