Dear Play-up,(posted 8264 days ago)Totally agree with you.Another very pertinent point is HOW did the debt arise in the first place? Was it because the lenders allowed the property to be under-valued and therefore under-sold? If the debt has arisen because they did not comply with the requirement of the B.Soc. Act 1986 (to obtain the best price reasonably available)that is their 1st major mistake don't you think? There are those who might say that any alleged debt incurred in that way is self-induced by the lender, and further,has deprived you of your rightful possessions(HRA) i.e money that would have been acquired over and above the amount actually obtained as a result of that under-selling? Good luck and keep us posted.