From what I understand a money order judgement and a county court judgement are the same thing, right?(posted 8516 days ago)If so, then how come Mattyc's advice is that a money judgement must be obtained within one year of selling the repo'd property but we're told that the lenders have 6 (or 12) years to chase us?
Does this mean that proceedings for the shortfall must take place within one year and if they don't, they've no right to pursue us? And if they do get a judgement, then they've up to 6 years (or 12) to enforce it?