6 year rule: FROM when TO when?

In April Robin Boote asked a very good question - from WHEN does the six year rule apply? Seems to be it's from the date of the repossession, not the sale. But six years TO when, if you see what I mean? I cannot believe it is enough for a company to argue that just because they've sent someone a letter asking for money, perhaps, say, five years and 11 months after the repossession, that they have 'started proceedings' within the six year limit, especially if the recipient does not acknowledge the debt. There seem to be a few cases like this back there in the Q&A archives. Has it ever been tested? Thought about? The Halifax press statement was vague in the extreme.

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